this post was submitted on 10 Oct 2024
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It has been said a gazillion times over the last few months, but is it getting through to those who need to hear it?

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[–] voiceofchris@lemmy.world 1 points 1 month ago (1 children)

Because the other person didn't do insane arithmetic between polls

The other person did no arithmetic at all. Nor did they provide any data at all. But you know what they did do? They claimed that the polling data supported the idea that third partiers support Harris over Trump. And they claimed that a couple very specific types of polling data supported this claim. You know which types? Yep, the exact ones i pulled polling data for. So, critisize the choice of those specific polls all you want, and go on about how i shouldn't compare two polls of disparate groups of people (which was one of my own points before you latched onto it, you're welcome), but in the end you're only making my case for me that the commenter who said the polls support their claim is wrong.

Since then you have: A) misinterpretted my original comment in which i linked the polls, B) repeated your "1 = 3 = magical math" argument, and most recently, C) cast aspersions on all polling data.

We are past (A). I have addressed (B) multiple times and until you answer my question about the exact percentage range that you would accept as proof, i will consider your argument defeated. Now (C) i am in complete agreement on, but polling data being unreliable only helps my argument. I.e. if polls are unreliable then why was the other commenter stating that polling data would prove them right? If polling is unreliable then what basis does the article have for claiming that third partiers prefer Harris over Trump?

before backing down,

No, no, no. I have asked you a very specific question which you have refused to answer. This is not what me backing down looks like.

[–] davidagain@lemmy.world 1 points 4 weeks ago* (last edited 4 weeks ago)

B) repeated your “1 = 3 = magical math” argument,

before backing down,

No, no, no.

Oh, sorry, I thought you had backed down from this:

I took the total percent of voters who disapprove of Trump (52.5%) and subtracted the percent of those voters who are Democrats (49%). The remaining 3.5% is therefore the percentage of voters who disapprove of Trump who are not Democrats.

I then showed that there are a full 8.5% of voters who are Republicans that dissaprove of Trump

I mean initially you stood by it, then you said the data was approximate then you found another survey where the numbers were closer (4% rather than 8.5%, but still with a magical 7 non-democrats being 8 republicans), then I thought you accepted that you couldn't do arithmetic with data from different polls, but here you are recanting your admission?

I have asked you a very specific question which you have refused to answer.

I have addressed (B) multiple times and until you answer my question about the exact percentage range that you would accept as proof, i will consider your argument defeated.

Lol. "Give me a precise percentage to use in my meaningless poll arithmetic or you're definitely wrong." isn't as convincing as you think it is. I shall not participate in your illogical nonsense.