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8/19 vs 11 of 19. 42 to 58 percent. A 16 point difference seems "close to even" to you?
Well OK-- that explains how we came to the last election loss after we were assured the race was "close to even".
I'd hate to see your conclusions in a stats class.
A guy who cherry picked his population data so it seems to support his hypothesis wants to pretend he's using stats? thats very cute.
My claim was that Democrats aren't consistent losers, and it's ridiculous to treat them as such because of the result of the last election. Your counterexample fails to dispute that. 5 wins out of 9 or 11 losses out of 19 are not differentiable from a coin toss. Same with 1 loss out of 1, 1 loss out of 2, 2 losses out of 3, 2 of 4, 2 of 5, 3 of 6, 4 of 7, 4 of 8, 4 of 9, 5 of 10, 6 of 11, or even 7 of 12 (going back to first Reagan win).
Unless, of course, you discount some or all of the wins post hoc with silly excuses.
My point regarding stats: If you flip a coin 19 times and you get 8 heads, there is a 16 point spread between the frequency of heads and tails. Should we conclude the coin is unevenly weighted?
And there you go again equating coin flips to elections. They are not even close to the same thing.
Its not even apples and oranges, its apples and horses. Time to use the old block button-- it has not been a pleasure.
A coin flip is an analogy for both sides having equal probabilities of winning. The original comment argued Democrats were consistent losers in Presidential elections. If their win rate could easily be accomplished by coin tosses, that's obviously not true.
You weren't reading what I was writing all along, so the block doesn't really make a difference.