this post was submitted on 09 Jan 2025
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Latin Language

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[–] Sidyctism2@discuss.tchncs.de 3 points 1 month ago (2 children)

how did the I becone the Z and the Z became the I? why are half the letters mirrored frim archaic latin to roman?

[–] merde@sh.itjust.works 2 points 1 month ago (1 children)

i wasn't an i. It was a different sound represented by a sign that resembled i.

[–] topherclay@lemmy.world 1 points 1 month ago

Huh? This hasn't got anything to do with sounds, funny enough.

[–] fxomt@lemm.ee 2 points 1 month ago* (last edited 1 month ago)

For the I to Z, I'm not entirely sure, but it doesn't seem too ridiculous.

As for why it was flipped, it's because Phoenician was right to left, and Greek/latin are descended from it, but they are left to right instead. I guess the ancient Greeks/Latin tribes didn't bother just fixing the letters. They eventually catched up and flipped it later on, though.

Language evolution is wacky, but beautiful :)