this post was submitted on 19 Aug 2023
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[–] snaptastic@beehaw.org -4 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Shouldn’t that sort of discrimination be illegal?

[–] Redditquaza@feddit.de 22 points 1 year ago (2 children)

I don't think you can call it discrimination if no one is excluded from marrying.

[–] snaptastic@beehaw.org 2 points 1 year ago

That only makes sense if you assume that marriage is a purely financial thing. It has lots of other aspects that have nothing to do with money that a lot of people dislike.

[–] ThorCroix@feddit.de 1 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

It is a discrimination since not everyone will find somebody to marry. And even if everybody could marry, it still is a discrimination towards not married people.

Marring for the purpose to get tax benefit and oder advantages is a sign of discrimination, because they are marring to get advantages in society.

Society is full of discriminations that people have normalised and so they don't see it as such.