this post was submitted on 27 Apr 2025
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I didn't actually know this (all my math knowledge comes from what my cs degree forced me to ingest) but google says yes (since natural numbers, being a countably infinite set, are apparently an example of the smallest possible cardinality of infinite sets, so any infinite subset of natural numbers is always the same cardinality.)
The answets to this stackexchange question go into detail but that's beyond what I understand without a lot of effort tbh.
OK, that makes some degree of sense in the abstract. I'll try to hold on to it.
Thanks for checking and getting back to me. It helps grok the cardinality a bit more.