this post was submitted on 05 Oct 2023
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They're quoting the KJV of the Bible, it's incorrect in modern language, but I found this:
"It's an archaic use of English which conjugates verbs of motion with be in present perfect, in much the same way as French still does. The statement is the equivalent of "Christ has risen" and is stating a present-perfect fact."
https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/237348/is-he-is-risen-correct