1371

submitted 11 months ago by Deegham@lemmy.blahaj.zone to c/196@lemmy.blahaj.zone

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[-] Sagifurius@lemm.ee 1 points 11 months ago

It's not a non sequitur. You'd know that if you ever read a book.

[-] FooBarrington@lemmy.world 1 points 11 months ago

No, it's a full-on non-sequitur. As I said, the question wasn't why we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 60, but why we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 10. What you're saying doesn't relate at all to my question.

But I'm done here, you're either arguing in incredibly bad faith, or you're not capable of understanding my questions. Either isn't something I'll spend more time on.