10
Without colonialism is it likely that there would have been "enough" wealth in Western Europe to complete primitive accumulation, enough capital to kick off capitalism as we know it? (lemmygrad.ml)
submitted 9 months ago* (last edited 9 months ago) by hongdao@lemmygrad.ml to c/asklemmygrad@lemmygrad.ml
5 comments fedilink hide all child comments

My hunch is yes, because of how successful English agrarian capitalism was early on... but likely more slowly?

you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
[-] hongdao@lemmygrad.ml 1 points 9 months ago

interesting thoughts

this post was submitted on 15 Jan 2024
10 points (100.0% liked)

Ask Lemmygrad

799 readers
84 users here now

A place to ask questions of Lemmygrad's best and brightest

founded 2 years ago
MODERATORS
Shaggy0291@lemmygrad.ml
GrainEater@lemmygrad.ml
SovereignState@lemmygrad.ml
QueerCommie@lemmygrad.ml
yogthos@lemmygrad.ml