this post was submitted on 03 Dec 2023
418 points (100.0% liked)

196

17034 readers
1737 users here now

Be sure to follow the rule before you head out.


Rule: You must post before you leave.



Other rules

Behavior rules:

Posting rules:

NSFW: NSFW content is permitted but it must be tagged and have content warnings. Anything that doesn't adhere to this will be removed. Content warnings should be added like: [penis], [explicit description of sex]. Non-sexualized breasts of any gender are not considered inappropriate and therefore do not need to be blurred/tagged.

If you have any questions, feel free to contact us on our matrix channel or email.

Other 196's:

founded 2 years ago
MODERATORS
 
you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
[–] SmartmanApps@programming.dev 1 points 11 months ago

I’ve even had people share a snip from some book that states this as fact

A Maths textbook.

However, this is not standardized

It's standard in every Maths textbook.

there is no reason to treat it as such just because a few people assert it is should be

The "few people" are Maths teachers and Maths textbook authors.

It doesn’t make sense at all to me that implied multiplication would be treated any differently

There's no such thing as implicit multiplication

They’re both the same operation

No, what people are calling "implicit multiplication" is either The Distributive Law - which is the first step in solving Brackets - or Terms - and neither of these things is "multiplication". Multiplication literally refers to multiplication symbols only.

It’s why that symbol is not used by real mathematicians at all. It is just abundantly more clear what you’re saying if you use the fraction bar notation

The division symbol is used - it is not the same thing as a fraction bar.

x÷y(z) is the SAME as x÷y*z.

No, it's the same as x÷(y*z).

There’s no mathematical or logical reason to treat it differently

Terms, The Distributive Law, are why it's treated differently.