II) During the time of Moses, the Semites lived partly in India, towards the Ganges, partly on the coasts of the South Sea to the Persian Gulf, in Elymais, Assyria, Chaldea, and in southern Mesopotamia, and with further expansion in some areas of Palestine, in the north and south of Arabia, finally too, but maybe not yet in Moses's time, in Abyssinia or Ethiopia.

Which isn't totally off compared to our modern understanding of who spoke proto-Semitic. "Semitic" as a descriptor of languages is unchallenged in linguistics because, well, symbols are arbitrary anyway and "Descendants of Shem", as in Noah's son, ancestor of Abraham, is not exactly a contentious thing among a group of related cultures having birthed no less than three Abrahamic religions.

[–] Salvo@aussie.zone 1 points 6 months ago

I think you a both right. Historically, Semites referred to a large cultural group.

Over time, it has become a nonsense word because those cultural groups have become so dilute and diverse that you can’t point at someone and say they are part of that group.

More recently, the label has become misappropriated by some sort of whacky religious nutbaggery so they can oppress other people.