this post was submitted on 27 May 2024
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Lemmy Shitpost

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Welcome to Lemmy Shitpost. Here you can shitpost to your hearts content.

Anything and everything goes. Memes, Jokes, Vents and Banter. Though we still have to comply with lemmy.world instance rules. So behave!


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Refrain from using harmful language pertaining to a protected characteristic: e.g. race, gender, sexuality, disability or religion.

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[–] MxM111@kbin.social 5 points 5 months ago (1 children)

Having English as second language, you don’t have to convince me that spoken language and spelling are only loosely related. While being dyslexic does not help either, something dies in me each time I am spelling “eye”, or “year” and struggle with the words like philosophy (fylosophy?).

[–] yetAnotherUser@feddit.de 1 points 5 months ago (1 children)

Smh just learn Ancient Greek:

philosophy <=> φιλοσοφία <=> Phi Iota Lambda Omicron Sigma Omicron Phi Iota Alpha

[–] MxM111@kbin.social 2 points 5 months ago (1 children)

So, phi should be a single letter, right? It is single letter in Greek and other languages.

[–] yetAnotherUser@feddit.de 1 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago)

Uh I had to quickly look at Wikipedia but apparently the reason it's transcribed with Ph is:

At the time these letters were borrowed, there was no Greek letter that represented /f/: the Greek letter phi 'Φ' then represented an aspirated voiceless bilabial plosive /ph/, although in Modern Greek it has come to represent /f/.)

And so out of the various vav variants in the Mediterranean world, the letter F entered the Roman alphabet attached to a sound which the Greeks did not have.

So Greeks pronounced Phi differently from F and somehow someone decided that it should be transcribed as Ph because it sounded different from the transcriber's sound of F. Maybe the Phi symbol just looked like a P.