this post was submitted on 27 Jun 2024
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[–] myslsl@lemmy.world 6 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago)

Yes, informally in the sense that the error between the two numbers is "arbitrarily small". Sometimes in introductory real analysis courses you see an exercise like: "prove if x, y are real numbers such that x=y, then for any real epsilon > 0 we have |x - y| < epsilon." Which is a more rigorous way to say roughly the same thing. Going back to informality, if you give any required degree of accuracy (epsilon), then the error between x and y (which are the same number), is less than your required degree of accuracy