this post was submitted on 22 May 2025
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Why wouldn't having to deal with that arousal be the problem and responsibility of the aroused instead of, by default and preemtively, limiting the rights of any prospective and involuntary "arousee" in existence?
If arousal isn’t a real thing and it’s the fault of the person being aroused, would that suggest total nudity should be ok as well?
Remember this whole discussion is about discrimination. So what you're asking is "In contexts where full male body nudity is arbitrarily deemed acceptable, why wouldn't full female body nudity be acceptable as well?"
And the answer, of course, is that there's no reason to make a distinction, is there?
Some of these users are unironically repeating rape cultural word for word and in this case with the add on of "I'm just asking questions". Thanks for sticking it to them. =)
I really don't think that's a useful mindset. We're all just people here, having conversations and - ideally - socratic dialogues. What could be gained by sticking anything to anyone?