this post was submitted on 09 Sep 2023
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The idea that Stalin intentionally committed genocide in Ukraine is literal Nazi propaganda that was in turn pushed by right-wing groups in the US. Great article on it here:
The article is from 1988 by the way, in case you were wondering about the reference to the Contras.
Great excerpt! Thanks comrade!
What a powerful argument, clearly 35 years later this article has pushed countless others to uncover the truth behind the Ukrainian famines.
Or, perhaps if the Holodomor is still recognized as a man-made famine, that this article's author is mistaken.
So much for Stalin's citizenry having enough to eat.
Computer, please google William Randolph Hearst and Goebbels
Did someone allege genocide?
Prisoners in the United States jumped from 120,284 in 1923 to 210,418 in 1933. (Source (p. 210))
Executions increased to 197, the highest number in US history, in 1935. (Source)
The U.S. forcibly deported one million of its own citizens to Mexico in the 1930s. Source
Since you’re probably using an intentionally ridiculous US estimate, I’ll use an intentionally ridiculous Russian estimate and say that seven million people died from the Great Depression. This Russian estimate uses the same intentionally ridiculous methodology of the U.S. one.
Put together, why isn’t this enough to declare that a genocide happened in the U.S.?
If it's all Reagan's fault, why did this cherry-picked post say the Soviets were being well fed in 1983?
You should take a look at this infographic. It answers all of your questions.
I mean, no one's gonna post a 30 page paper from a social science journal in the memes comm.
If you'd like a more nuanced discussion, you're welcome to read The Years of Hunger: Soviet Agriculture, 1931–1933 by Davies and Wheatcroft (arguably the most detailed scholarly study and account of the Soviet Famine) and discuss it with the site on the literature or askchapo comms.