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So close yet so far
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this post was submitted on 25 Jul 2024
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the_dunk_tank
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Goes to show that the difference in purchasing power between different countries is partially a product of geopolitics and not merely because the rich countries have more efficient economies.
In any rational world, nobody from a rich country would need to travel to a poor country to increase their purchasing power. The very idea would be nonsensical. Imagine going to a country that produces things more inefficiently and this somehow allows you to consume more products!
https://hexbear.net/comment/5172599
There is a lot to get into and I am short of time, but I wouldn't really say "inefficient" - after all, the median worker in the global south has directly and indirectly more surplus value extracted at lesser compensation (super-exploitation and super-profits) - that's very efficient. All those mountains of goods produced and they will probably never go on any trips or consume like westerners feel they have to - EDIT I assume you meant to say that, maybe I just overreading things
Well, what I mean exactly is that production in the poorer nations is usually significantly more labor intensive. If the labor of rich country citizens exchanged at the same rate as those of poorer countries, a first worlder would going to a third world country would actually experience a massive decline in purchasing power.